Uralic languages, which were nearby, also had palatalization. From Wordnik.com. [Winter's Law in Balto-Slavic, "Hybrid Theory" and phonation - Part 2] Reference
Overall, the use of palatalization seems to be a distinctly eastern feature. From Wordnik.com. [More isogloss amusement for the linguistic nerd at heart] Reference
The -i- neighbouring s also would motivate the later palatalization of the sibilant to ś. From Wordnik.com. [Archive 2010-06-01] Reference
At that point, palatalization and labialization could be understood as consonantal features. From Wordnik.com. [The Great Pre-IE Centralization] Reference
The names shared between Etruscan and Latin show no such palatalization either in these stops. From Wordnik.com. [Some observations concerning Woodard's The Ancient Languages of Europe] Reference
Hahaha, yes, and curiously also Tocharian had its own seperate palatalization as it moved eastwards. From Wordnik.com. [Winter's Law in Balto-Slavic, "Hybrid Theory" and phonation - Part 2] Reference
On a side note, I wonder if the palatalization seen in Balto-Slavic and Indo-Iranian is an areal feature. From Wordnik.com. [Winter's Law in Balto-Slavic, "Hybrid Theory" and phonation - Part 2] Reference
Here's the message: Glen Gordon, Velars and palatalization (was: RE: tied Re: Albanian (1)) (Jan 23 2004). From Wordnik.com. [Diachrony of PIE] Reference
Glen: Hahaha, yes, and curiously also Tocharian had its own seperate palatalization as it moved eastwards. From Wordnik.com. [Winter's Law in Balto-Slavic, "Hybrid Theory" and phonation - Part 2] Reference
Rob: On a side note, I wonder if the palatalization seen in Balto-Slavic and Indo-Iranian is an areal feature. From Wordnik.com. [Winter's Law in Balto-Slavic, "Hybrid Theory" and phonation - Part 2] Reference
Afterall, the onus was up to them to explain the source of an effectively non-existent palatalization in Pre-IE. From Wordnik.com. [The origin of the Indo-European uvular stop (traditionally the "plain, non-palatalized stop")] Reference
I never once contested this and that Japanese chi is the result of palatalization is of course an inarguable fact. From Wordnik.com. [Concern trolls and the Etruscan bilabial 'f'] Reference
This in itself is clear proof that these sounds must be interpreted as plain, not marked with added palatalization. From Wordnik.com. [Reinterpreting the Proto-Indo-European velar series] Reference
So it seems clear to me that the former is the result of palatalization before /i/, an extremely common phenomenon among languages. From Wordnik.com. [Concern trolls and the Etruscan bilabial 'f'] Reference
Rob: "So it seems clear to me that the former is the result of palatalization before /i/, an extremely common phenomenon among languages.". From Wordnik.com. [Concern trolls and the Etruscan bilabial 'f'] Reference
However, we can see that the reinterpretation that I'm promoting has the advantage of doing away with palatalization in all these instances. From Wordnik.com. [The origin of the Indo-European uvular stop (traditionally the "plain, non-palatalized stop")] Reference
Those advocating an anglicized pronunciation /gdaɪnsk/ were transferring the palatalization of the nasal into a preceding close front vowel. From Wordnik.com. [Boulogne, Gdansk and Spain | Linguism] Reference
I'd be delighted to know what your solution to this conundrum might be since it assuredly has nothing to do with +front environments or palatalization. From Wordnik.com. [Linear A treatment of consonant clusters] Reference
In addition to ḍād and ẓā', I suspect this of qāf to explain its dialectal reflexes as /g/, as well as the seemingly random palatalization in jīm. From Wordnik.com. [Ejective or Pharyngealized Stops in Proto-Semitic?] Reference
However Tocharian shows palatalization nonetheless and I suppose I should explain myself better in the pdf that I'm also including satem-like areal influence as well. From Wordnik.com. [Diachrony of PIE] Reference
In AbAd, palatalization (the act of pronouncing something with an added "y"-like quality) and labialization (the act of pronouncing something with an added "w"-like quality) are standard features in their sound systems. From Wordnik.com. [The Great Pre-IE Centralization] Reference
This then seems like a more natural solution overall than the traditional account which would have us believe in palatalized velars which extend far into pre-IE despite being unstable and despite lacking any indication of a recent source of their supposed palatalization. From Wordnik.com. [Markedness and the uvular proposal in PIE] Reference
Use of Morphemes is subject to Phonological Change. (assimilation, palatalization, reduction of clusters, Verner's phenomenon). (ref: ppt3). From Wordnik.com. [Recently Uploaded Slideshows] Reference
I have specialized in historical linguistics and am researching the phenomenon of palatalization in Northwestern Germanic (Dutch, Frisian, German, English) both from a diachronic and dialectological (synchronic) perspective. From Wordnik.com. [Citizendium, the Citizens' Compendium - Recent changes [en]] Reference
3. If it's not a scribal error, the first "i" in Ruifri could have been from anticipatory palatalization. From Wordnik.com. [More comedy with the purported Etruscan name Ruifri] Reference
Centum dialects lacked palatalization altogether. From Wordnik.com. [Reinterpreting the Proto-Indo-European velar series] Reference
Later on, /i/ caused palatalization of preceding consonants and /u/ caused labialization of them. From Wordnik.com. [The Great Pre-IE Centralization] Reference
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