We know that pronouns and numerals contain the so-called palatalized stops exclusively and yet this is completely counter to the principle of phonological markedness.    From Wordnik.com.  [Reinterpreting the Proto-Indo-European velar series] Reference

But how can we explain IE without palatalized sounds?.    From Wordnik.com.  [Reinterpreting the Proto-Indo-European velar series] Reference

The origin of the Indo-European uvular stop traditionally the "plain, non-palatalized stop".    From Wordnik.com.  [The origin of the Indo-European uvular stop (traditionally the "plain, non-palatalized stop")] Reference

Paleoglot: The origin of the Indo-European uvular stop traditionally the "plain, non-palatalized stop".    From Wordnik.com.  [The origin of the Indo-European uvular stop (traditionally the "plain, non-palatalized stop")] Reference

All part of a Canadian — you need to say it with a nasalized and palatalized sneer — smeer campaign against Us.    From Wordnik.com.  [Williams criticized on Hickey; story goes national] Reference

The first sound is definitely not palatalized as he suggests without ignoring what is actually historically attested.    From Wordnik.com.  [Archive 2007-03-01] Reference

Nostraticists, working with the flawed palatalized model of yore, were in effect sent down a wild goose chase for a very long time.    From Wordnik.com.  [The origin of the Indo-European uvular stop (traditionally the "plain, non-palatalized stop")] Reference

However, labialized stops, palatalized stops and now ejectives seem to me to be purely imaginative overkill, based on nothing concrete.    From Wordnik.com.  [A new value for Minoan 'd'] Reference

We can then notice that, lo and behold, Tocharian might have added new palatalized phonemes to its sound inventory because it passed through this same area!.    From Wordnik.com.  [More isogloss amusement for the linguistic nerd at heart] Reference

The pronoun is never reconstructed as a plain voiceless stop, not even amongst proponents of the Glottalic Theory who reconstruct a non-palatalized ejective stop.    From Wordnik.com.  [How NOT to reconstruct a protolanguage] Reference

As if this isn't enough, even though his revisal of the phonology is fundamentally flawed with the basic data available to us, he goes on to add that chi is not a palatalized velar as his proposed pattern would suggest, but a velar fricative /x/.    From Wordnik.com.  [Some observations concerning Woodard's The Ancient Languages of Europe] Reference

This then seems like a more natural solution overall than the traditional account which would have us believe in palatalized velars which extend far into pre-IE despite being unstable and despite lacking any indication of a recent source of their supposed palatalization.    From Wordnik.com.  [Markedness and the uvular proposal in PIE] Reference

So in the diagram above, I toy with the idea that certain areas to the east and south, for example, had rich phonologies using things like ejectives, labialized sounds and palatalized sounds while also containing few vowels, such as the areas I propose for Abkhaz-Adyghe (AbAd) and Mid IE, the ancestor of Proto-Indo-European (PIE or IE).    From Wordnik.com.  [More isogloss amusement for the linguistic nerd at heart] Reference

For example, based on the diagram above, we could imagine that satem languages emerged first as Late Indo-European dialects that happened to venture into the "palatalizing" region, or in other words, the region where palatalized phonemes were distinct sounds in the phonologies of unknown ancient languages already spoken there that preceded IE.    From Wordnik.com.  [More isogloss amusement for the linguistic nerd at heart] Reference

In several Slavic languages, the acute indicates that a consonant is palatalized.    From Wordnik.com.  [Citizendium, the Citizens' Compendium - Recent changes [en]] Reference

An umbrella term for several processes of assimilation in phonetics and phonology, by which the articulation of a consonant is changed under the influence of a preceding or following front vowel or a palatal or palatalized consonant.    From Wordnik.com.  [Citizendium, the Citizens' Compendium - Recent changes [en]] Reference

When followed by l the history of f was like that of c and g: the result for all three was a palatalized l which soon began to be represented by ll (approximate to li in English "filial": flamma, Span. llama, clamare, Span. llamar, etc.).    From Wordnik.com.  [The Catholic Encyclopedia, Volume 14: Simony-Tournon] Reference

2 Read Reinterpreting the Proto-Indo-European velar series to understand why I think PIE in fact doesn't have palatalized phonemes and how PIE's antiquated orthography can be deceiving.    From Wordnik.com.  [The Great Pre-IE Centralization] Reference

R remained unchanged, the double r remained as a very strongly-trilled sound (like initial single r) and double n and l ordinarily palatalized to the written n and ll (with sounds approximate to those of ny in English "canyon" and li in "filial").    From Wordnik.com.  [The Catholic Encyclopedia, Volume 14: Simony-Tournon] Reference

Intervocalic/n/is always palatalized.    From Wordnik.com.  [First Warning]

Intervocalic n is always palatalized.    From Wordnik.com.  [Massage] Reference

G was not palatalized), "the Book of the Angel", wherein an angel is represented as entrusting to St. Patrick the primatial rights of.    From Wordnik.com.  [The Catholic Encyclopedia, Volume 1: Aachen-Assize] Reference